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QUESTION 1
What is the default delimiter used by the Dojo List Text Box control to display multiple values?

A. Space
B. Comma
C. Semi Colon
D. None, multiple values are always displayed on the same line or wrapped if space is not available.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Some additional server-side JavaScript @Functions have been provided via the Extension Library for presenting messages to users. Which three @Formulas can be used? (Choose three.)

A. @IsError
B. @Prompt
C. @InfoMessage
D. @ErrorMessage
E. @FailureMessage
F. @WarningMessage

Answer: CDF

QUESTION 3
Samantha would like to use the Search functionality provided in the Application Layout control. What does she need to do to configure search on the Application Layout control in the Properties view?

A. Samantha needs to click on the Place Bar tab, enter “true” for the showSearch property, and select the Page Name for displaying results.
B. Samantha needs to click on the All Properties tab, enter “true” for the showSearch property, and select the Page Name for displaying results.
C. Samantha needs to select the Title Bar tab, select “Show search controls (options dropdown, edit box, and search icon)”, and select the PageName for displaying results.
D. Samantha needs to click on the Search tab, select “Show search controls (options dropdown, edit box, and search icon)”, and select the PageName for displaying results.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which property should Anne use to allow her users to launch the Name Picker via a link with the label “Select”?

A. Anne should set the value property to “Select”.
B. Anne should set the pickerText property to “Select”.
C. Anne should set the dialogTitle property to “Select”.
D. Anne should set the labelIcon property to “false”. “Select” is the default text that appears if no label icon is used.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Alice is using the Application Layout control in a custom control. She wants to enable drop targets in the left column and middle column only. How would she accomplish this?

A. Alice doesn’t have to do anything. By default all columns are selected and leaving them blank will disable them.
B. Alice should click on the Drop Target tab in the Application Layout control and select the left and middle columns to enable them.
C. Alice should click on the Application Layout All Properties tab and set the left Column and middle Column properties to “true”.
D. Alice should click on the Application Layout tab in the Properties view and select the left column and middle column under “Content area”.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How would the Name Picker control know that the Dojo Name Text Box control allows multiple values?

A. The multiple Separator property is set.
B. The max Values property is set to more than 1.
C. The multiple Separator property is set to “true”.
D. The multiple Values property is set to “true”.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Carl would like to add two action buttons to the bottom of the Form Table control from the Extension Library. How can he accomplish that?

A. Carl should add two button controls to the footer facet inside the Form Table control.
B. Carl should add two action buttons below the final row but inside the Form Table control.
C. Carl should add a Panel control below the Form Table control. Carl can then add two button controls inside the Panel.
D. Carl should add a Panel control to the footer facet of the Form Table control. Carl can then add two button controls inside the Panel.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which property on the pager Add Rows control defines the number of rows to add to the data View?

A. size
B. numRows
C. addCount
D. rowCount

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What does the Navigator control property expandable=”true” do?

A. automatically expands all entries within the Tree Node
B. makes the Navigator control show only the parent levels
C. shows the Navigator parent levels and expands them out one level
D. renders a twisty arrow on all the basic Container Node entries within the Tree Node

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which is true about enabling “Set Partial Execution Mode” and then clicking on the “Select Element” button to specify an id?

A. It allows a developer to execute code only for the specified id and it’s children.
B. It allows a developer to refresh only a portion of the XPage specified by the id.
C. It allows a developer to execute code only for the specified id and it’s children. “Partial Update” cannot be enabled for this to work.
D. It allows a developer to execute code only for the specified id and it’s children. “Partial Update” must also be enabled for this to work.

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is the purpose of Palette Profiles?

A. allows a developer to save colors in a Profile document
B. allows a developer to select colors for the Controls view
C. allows a developer to select which controls appear in the Controls view
D. allows a developer to save settings for the Controls view in a Profile document

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How does the option “Run server-based XPages apps directly on server” improve performance?

A. using faster disk drives
B. reducing network traffic
C. using the faster server CPUs
D. having access to large amounts of memory

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A retailer’s delivery rules do not allow shipping for an open box television (TV) that is more than 150 miles away. However, they do support moving this TV through a network of stores that are spread throughout the country, until it reaches a store that supports delivery to the customer. The retailer needs to configure such a multi-hop transfer of inventory through the supply chain and provide an accurate promise date to a customer who is over 1000 miles away from the store with the open box TV. In order to do so, Sterling Order Management considers all the following configuration settings EXCEPT for:

A. Receiving store calendar.
B. Receipt Processing Time.
C. Delivery resource pool capacity.
D. Transfer relationship across stores.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A customer purchased a DVD player from a store, and later realized that some of the required features were missing. The customer tries to return the DVD player for a refund, but the sales order cannot be located in the Sterling application. Which type of return should be created in the Sterling application?

A. Refund Order
B. Exchange Order
C. Blind Return Order
D. Speed Exchange Order

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A customer would like a purchase order (PO) to be “Created”, but it should only treat 80% of future supply as available. This should happen until the PO receives a status update that indicates its been “Approved”, at which point 90% of the future supply can be considered for promising. Future supply can be considered when scheduling orders but should not be considered when releasing the pick instructions to the fulfillment center. In order to model this requirement with MINIMAL custom logic, the solution design must:

A. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.
2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.
3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.
4. Set up the appropriate safety factor of 80% for supply type “Purchase order placed” and 90% for supply type “Inbound approved”.
5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.
6. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
B. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.
2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.
3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.
4. Set up the appropriate safety factor of 80% for demand type “Scheduled” and 90% for demand type “Released”.
5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.
6. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
C. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.
2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.
3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.
4. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.
5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
6. Implement the Supply corrections user exit to only show 80% or 90% of supply as applicable.
D. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.
2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.
3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.
4. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.
5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
6. Implement the Availability corrections user exit to only show 80% or 90% of supply as applicable.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A business requirement is to charge payment for the exchange order upfront and then refund the customer when the returned item is received. This requirement should be configured as a:

A. even exchange.
B. regular exchange.
C. advanced exchange.
D. advanced pre-paid exchange.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A business needs to configure a drop ship from a vendor to a customer directly with visibility into the purchase order (PO) created by the vendor and status updates on the PO. What should be done to meet this requirement?

A. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization does not have a hierarchical relation with the seller organization on theorder.
2. Do not check “Suppress chained order creation even if seller requires” setting.
3. Run Chained_Order_Create to create the purchase order.PO getting shipped will result in the corresponding sales order line being shipped.
B. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization has a hierarchical relation with the seller organization on the order.
2. Check the “Suppress chained order creation even if seller requires” setting.
3. Run Chained_Order_Create to create the purchase order.PO getting shipped will result in the corresponding sales order line being shipped. C. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization has a hierarchical relation with the seller organization on the order.
2. Check the “Suppress chained order creation even if seller requires” setting.
3. Run Chained_Order_Create to create the PO. Place custom logic on PO “Shipped” event to update the corresponding sales order status to”Shipped”.
D. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization does not have a hierarchical relation with the seller organization on theorder.
2. Implement a listener on the PO pipeline that updates the sales order pipeline.
3. Implement custom logic to stamp the PO’s delivery location as customer’s address.PO getting shipped will result in the corresponding sales order line being shipped.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following Sterling Call Center business requirements CANNOT be implemented using the out of the box application?

A. Monitor orders for FTC compliance.
B. Schedule appointments for delivery items.
C. Initiate returns and refunds to customers immediately, if required.
D. Retrieve a WebSphere Commerce shopping cart from the Sterling Call Center.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Your customer needs a ‘Special Exempt’ indicator on ‘Job Attributes’ (Infotype 1610). What do you recommend?

A. Change the data dictionary definition of a standard text field.
B. Change the field attribute on Dialog Database Assignment Table (T777D).
C. Configure the Screen Modification Table (T588M) and set the field as a radio button.
D. Customize the Infotype to add a radio button for the additional field.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which action is required for using structural authorizations?

A. Configure and run the profile generator.
B. Implement the organizational key.
C. Create and activate authorization objects.
D. Assign authorization profiles to users.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A customer would like to have a batch process to automate the update of the Appraiser (new manager) on the review form based on employees’ transfer. Therefore, a custom program must be developed. Which functionality should be implemented in a custom program to meet this requirement?

A. Update Organizational Unit assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
B. Update Appraiser assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
C. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new Organizational Unit assignment.
D. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new manager assigned as Appraiser.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
HR wants to monitor the maintenance of Personal Development (PD) master data. Which methods are available to audit this? (Choose two)

A. Program RPUAUD00 for logged changes to standard infotypes 0001-0999.
B. Log of report starts accessing logical database PCH.
C. Log of report starts accessing logical database PNP.
D. Transaction PPOME for organization structure changes.
E. Program RHDOC_DISPLAY for logged changes to standard infotypes 1000-1999.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which areas are used by HCM Processes and Forms? (Choose two)

A. SAP Employee Interaction Center (EIC)
B. SAP Interactive Forms
C. SAP Business Workflow
D. SAP Network Process Integration (PI)

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
An organization has the need to reduce their headcount. Therefore they need to identify jobs and positions that have to be retained based on critical business processes. How can you determine what jobs and positions are critical?

A. Execute Complete Job Description (S_AHR_61016501) from Organizational Management Info System.
B. Execute Infotype Reporting (S_AHR_61016532) from Organizational Management Info System using Spec. Position Characteristics (infotype 1958).
C. Execute Profile Matchup (PEPM) from Personnel Development Info System.
D. Execute Complete Position Description (S_AHR_61016511) from Organizational Management Info System.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
After having set up structural authorizations, your customer is experiencing slow system response times. How can you improve system response times?

A. Delete all entries of structural authorization indexes and recreate each structural authorization profile.
B. Generate indexes for users assigned to these structural authorizations using RHBAUS00.
C. Increase database storage capacity to better process the complex indexing associated with building and maintaining structural authorizations.
D. Reduce the number of structural authorization profiles to allow fewer users access to the structural authorization objects.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A retailer’s delivery rules do not allow shipping for an open box television (TV) that is more than 150 miles away. However, they do support moving this TV through a network of stores that are spread throughout the country, until it reaches a store that supports delivery to the customer. The retailer needs to configure such a multi-hop transfer of inventory through the supply chain and provide an accurate promise date to a customer who is over 1000 miles away from the store with the open box TV. In order to do so, Sterling Order Management considers all the following configuration settings EXCEPT for:

A. Receiving store calendar.
B. Receipt Processing Time.
C. Delivery resource pool capacity.
D. Transfer relationship across stores.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A customer purchased a DVD player from a store, and later realized that some of the required features were missing. The customer tries to return the DVD player for a refund, but the sales order cannot be located in the Sterling application. Which type of return should be created in the Sterling application?

A. Refund Order
B. Exchange Order
C. Blind Return Order
D. Speed Exchange Order

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A customer would like a purchase order (PO) to be “Created”, but it should only treat 80% of future supply as available. This should happen until the PO receives a status update that indicates its been “Approved”, at which point 90% of the future supply can be considered for promising. Future supply can be considered when scheduling orders but should not be considered when releasing the pick instructions to the fulfillment center. In order to model this requirement with MINIMAL custom logic, the solution design must:

A. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.
2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.
3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.
4. Set up the appropriate safety factor of 80% for supply type “Purchase order placed” and 90% for supply type “Inbound approved”.
5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.
6. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
B. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.
2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.
3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.
4. Set up the appropriate safety factor of 80% for demand type “Scheduled” and 90% for demand type “Released”.
5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.
6. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
C. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.
2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.
3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.
4. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.
5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
6. Implement the Supply corrections user exit to only show 80% or 90% of supply as applicable.
D. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.
2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.
3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.
4. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.
5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
6. Implement the Availability corrections user exit to only show 80% or 90% of supply as applicable.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A business requirement is to charge payment for the exchange order upfront and then refund the customer when the returned item is received. This requirement should be configured as a:

A. even exchange.
B. regular exchange.
C. advanced exchange.
D. advanced pre-paid exchange.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A business needs to configure a drop ship from a vendor to a customer directly with visibility into the purchase order (PO) created by the vendor and status updates on the PO. What should be done to meet this requirement?

A. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization does not have a hierarchical relation with the seller organization on theorder.
2. Do not check “Suppress chained order creation even if seller requires” setting.
3. Run Chained_Order_Create to create the purchase order.PO getting shipped will result in the corresponding sales order line being shipped.
B. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization has a hierarchical relation with the seller organization on the order.
2. Check the “Suppress chained order creation even if seller requires” setting.
3. Run Chained_Order_Create to create the purchase order.PO getting shipped will result in the corresponding sales order line being shipped. C. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization has a hierarchical relation with the seller organization on the order.
2. Check the “Suppress chained order creation even if seller requires” setting.
3. Run Chained_Order_Create to create the PO. Place custom logic on PO “Shipped” event to update the corresponding sales order status to”Shipped”.
D. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization does not have a hierarchical relation with the seller organization on theorder.
2. Implement a listener on the PO pipeline that updates the sales order pipeline.
3. Implement custom logic to stamp the PO’s delivery location as customer’s address.PO getting shipped will result in the corresponding sales order line being shipped.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following Sterling Call Center business requirements CANNOT be implemented using the out of the box application?

A. Monitor orders for FTC compliance.
B. Schedule appointments for delivery items.
C. Initiate returns and refunds to customers immediately, if required.
D. Retrieve a WebSphere Commerce shopping cart from the Sterling Call Center.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Your customer needs a ‘Special Exempt’ indicator on ‘Job Attributes’ (Infotype 1610). What do you recommend?

A. Change the data dictionary definition of a standard text field.
B. Change the field attribute on Dialog Database Assignment Table (T777D).
C. Configure the Screen Modification Table (T588M) and set the field as a radio button.
D. Customize the Infotype to add a radio button for the additional field.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which action is required for using structural authorizations?

A. Configure and run the profile generator.
B. Implement the organizational key.
C. Create and activate authorization objects.
D. Assign authorization profiles to users.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A customer would like to have a batch process to automate the update of the Appraiser (new manager) on the review form based on employees’ transfer. Therefore, a custom program must be developed. Which functionality should be implemented in a custom program to meet this requirement?

A. Update Organizational Unit assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
B. Update Appraiser assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
C. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new Organizational Unit assignment.
D. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new manager assigned as Appraiser.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
HR wants to monitor the maintenance of Personal Development (PD) master data. Which methods are available to audit this? (Choose two)

A. Program RPUAUD00 for logged changes to standard infotypes 0001-0999.
B. Log of report starts accessing logical database PCH.
C. Log of report starts accessing logical database PNP.
D. Transaction PPOME for organization structure changes.
E. Program RHDOC_DISPLAY for logged changes to standard infotypes 1000-1999.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which areas are used by HCM Processes and Forms? (Choose two)

A. SAP Employee Interaction Center (EIC)
B. SAP Interactive Forms
C. SAP Business Workflow
D. SAP Network Process Integration (PI)

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
An organization has the need to reduce their headcount. Therefore they need to identify jobs and positions that have to be retained based on critical business processes. How can you determine what jobs and positions are critical?

A. Execute Complete Job Description (S_AHR_61016501) from Organizational Management Info System.
B. Execute Infotype Reporting (S_AHR_61016532) from Organizational Management Info System using Spec. Position Characteristics (infotype 1958).
C. Execute Profile Matchup (PEPM) from Personnel Development Info System.
D. Execute Complete Position Description (S_AHR_61016511) from Organizational Management Info System.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
After having set up structural authorizations, your customer is experiencing slow system response times. How can you improve system response times?

A. Delete all entries of structural authorization indexes and recreate each structural authorization profile.
B. Generate indexes for users assigned to these structural authorizations using RHBAUS00.
C. Increase database storage capacity to better process the complex indexing associated with building and maintaining structural authorizations.
D. Reduce the number of structural authorization profiles to allow fewer users access to the structural authorization objects.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Your customer needs a ‘Special Exempt’ indicator on ‘Job Attributes’ (Infotype 1610). What do you recommend?

A. Change the data dictionary definition of a standard text field.
B. Change the field attribute on Dialog Database Assignment Table (T777D).
C. Configure the Screen Modification Table (T588M) and set the field as a radio button.
D. Customize the Infotype to add a radio button for the additional field.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which action is required for using structural authorizations?

A. Configure and run the profile generator.
B. Implement the organizational key.
C. Create and activate authorization objects.
D. Assign authorization profiles to users.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A customer would like to have a batch process to automate the update of the Appraiser (new manager) on the review form based on employees’ transfer. Therefore, a custom program must be developed. Which functionality should be implemented in a custom program to meet this requirement?

A. Update Organizational Unit assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
B. Update Appraiser assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
C. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new Organizational Unit assignment.
D. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new manager assigned as Appraiser.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
HR wants to monitor the maintenance of Personal Development (PD) master data. Which methods are available to audit this? (Choose two)

A. Program RPUAUD00 for logged changes to standard infotypes 0001-0999.
B. Log of report starts accessing logical database PCH.
C. Log of report starts accessing logical database PNP.
D. Transaction PPOME for organization structure changes.
E. Program RHDOC_DISPLAY for logged changes to standard infotypes 1000-1999.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which areas are used by HCM Processes and Forms? (Choose two)

A. SAP Employee Interaction Center (EIC)
B. SAP Interactive Forms
C. SAP Business Workflow
D. SAP Network Process Integration (PI)

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
An organization has the need to reduce their headcount. Therefore they need to identify jobs and positions that have to be retained based on critical business processes. How can you determine what jobs and positions are critical?

A. Execute Complete Job Description (S_AHR_61016501) from Organizational Management Info System.
B. Execute Infotype Reporting (S_AHR_61016532) from Organizational Management Info System using Spec. Position Characteristics (infotype 1958).
C. Execute Profile Matchup (PEPM) from Personnel Development Info System.
D. Execute Complete Position Description (S_AHR_61016511) from Organizational Management Info System.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
After having set up structural authorizations, your customer is experiencing slow system response times. How can you improve system response times?

A. Delete all entries of structural authorization indexes and recreate each structural authorization profile.
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C. Increase database storage capacity to better process the complex indexing associated with building and maintaining structural authorizations.
D. Reduce the number of structural authorization profiles to allow fewer users access to the structural authorization objects.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A Citrix Engineer needs to load balance enrollment requests from Apple iOS devices. The engineer should implement an SSL Offload virtual server using __________ protocol and port __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)

A. SSL; 443
B. TCP; 443
C. SSL; 8443
D. TCP; 8443

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A school has a pool of mobile devices that students use on premises for coursework. How could a Citrix Engineer configure XenMobile Device Manager to warn the user when the device is taken off campus?

A. Deploy a Roaming Configuration policy.
B. Issue a Locate from the Device Security menu.
C. Enable Tracking from the Device Security menu.
D. Set the Geo-fencing options in a Location Services policy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two policies should a Citrix Engineer add to a deployment package to set the status of a user’s device to Out of Compliance and notify the engineer whenever a user installs a blacklisted application on an enrolled device? (Choose two.)

A. App Lock
B. Restriction
C. Automated Actions
D. Applications Access

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which two settings could a Citrix Engineer configure during Express Setup on the App Controller console? (Choose two.)

A. License file
B. NTP Server
C. DNS Servers
D. HA Peer address

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to provide users with remote access to SaaS applications managed by XenMobile. Users will access the applications on their mobile devices through Worx Home. Which two options should the engineer configure in the session profile on the NetScaler?
(Choose two.)

A. ICAProxy OFF
B. Clientless Access ON
C. URL Encoding OBSCURE
D. Single Sign-on to Web Applications DISABLED

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is working in a XenMobile proof-of-concept environment, which has a single-hop DMZ. The engineer needs to integrate XenMobile Device Manager with XenMobile App Controller for internal testing purposes. Which two requirements must the engineer ensure are met in order to successfully configure this environment? (Choose two.)

A. The Device Manager must be able to resolve the App Controller’s Host Name.
B. The App Controller root certificate must be installed on the Device Manager server.
C. Ports 80 and 443 must be opened between the Device Manager and the App Controller.
D. Both the Device Manager and the App Controller must be located on the same network subnet.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Scenario:StoreFront is implemented as part of a XenMobile solution. Users in the environment currently rely on HTML5 Receiver because Citrix Receiver is NOT installed on their workstations. How could a Citrix Engineer present Web/SaaS applications to these users based on the scenario?

A. Enable StoreFront to aggregate App Controller apps.
B. Add the App Controller server to StoreFront as a Delivery Controller.
C. Enable the ‘Require app installation’ option in the Web/SaaS application properties.
D. Add the StoreFront Legacy support URL to the Windows Apps Configuration on the App Controller.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A Citrix Engineer needs to load balance enrollment requests from Apple iOS devices. The engineer should implement an SSL Offload virtual server using __________ protocol and port __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)

A. SSL; 443
B. TCP; 443
C. SSL; 8443
D. TCP; 8443

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A school has a pool of mobile devices that students use on premises for coursework. How could a Citrix Engineer configure XenMobile Device Manager to warn the user when the device is taken off campus?

A. Deploy a Roaming Configuration policy.
B. Issue a Locate from the Device Security menu.
C. Enable Tracking from the Device Security menu.
D. Set the Geo-fencing options in a Location Services policy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two policies should a Citrix Engineer add to a deployment package to set the status of a user’s device to Out of Compliance and notify the engineer whenever a user installs a blacklisted application on an enrolled device? (Choose two.)

A. App Lock
B. Restriction
C. Automated Actions
D. Applications Access

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which two settings could a Citrix Engineer configure during Express Setup on the App Controller console? (Choose two.)

A. License file
B. NTP Server
C. DNS Servers
D. HA Peer address

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to provide users with remote access to SaaS applications managed by XenMobile. Users will access the applications on their mobile devices through Worx Home. Which two options should the engineer configure in the session profile on the NetScaler?
(Choose two.)

A. ICAProxy OFF
B. Clientless Access ON
C. URL Encoding OBSCURE
D. Single Sign-on to Web Applications DISABLED

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is working in a XenMobile proof-of-concept environment, which has a single-hop DMZ. The engineer needs to integrate XenMobile Device Manager with XenMobile App Controller for internal testing purposes. Which two requirements must the engineer ensure are met in order to successfully configure this environment? (Choose two.)

A. The Device Manager must be able to resolve the App Controller’s Host Name.
B. The App Controller root certificate must be installed on the Device Manager server.
C. Ports 80 and 443 must be opened between the Device Manager and the App Controller.
D. Both the Device Manager and the App Controller must be located on the same network subnet.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Scenario:StoreFront is implemented as part of a XenMobile solution. Users in the environment currently rely on HTML5 Receiver because Citrix Receiver is NOT installed on their workstations. How could a Citrix Engineer present Web/SaaS applications to these users based on the scenario?

A. Enable StoreFront to aggregate App Controller apps.
B. Add the App Controller server to StoreFront as a Delivery Controller.
C. Enable the ‘Require app installation’ option in the Web/SaaS application properties.
D. Add the StoreFront Legacy support URL to the Windows Apps Configuration on the App Controller.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A Citrix Engineer needs to load balance enrollment requests from Apple iOS devices. The engineer should implement an SSL Offload virtual server using __________ protocol and port __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)

A. SSL; 443
B. TCP; 443
C. SSL; 8443
D. TCP; 8443

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A school has a pool of mobile devices that students use on premises for coursework. How could a Citrix Engineer configure XenMobile Device Manager to warn the user when the device is taken off campus?

A. Deploy a Roaming Configuration policy.
B. Issue a Locate from the Device Security menu.
C. Enable Tracking from the Device Security menu.
D. Set the Geo-fencing options in a Location Services policy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two policies should a Citrix Engineer add to a deployment package to set the status of a user’s device to Out of Compliance and notify the engineer whenever a user installs a blacklisted application on an enrolled device? (Choose two.)

A. App Lock
B. Restriction
C. Automated Actions
D. Applications Access

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which two settings could a Citrix Engineer configure during Express Setup on the App Controller console? (Choose two.)

A. License file
B. NTP Server
C. DNS Servers
D. HA Peer address

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to provide users with remote access to SaaS applications managed by XenMobile. Users will access the applications on their mobile devices through Worx Home. Which two options should the engineer configure in the session profile on the NetScaler?
(Choose two.)

A. ICAProxy OFF
B. Clientless Access ON
C. URL Encoding OBSCURE
D. Single Sign-on to Web Applications DISABLED

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is working in a XenMobile proof-of-concept environment, which has a single-hop DMZ. The engineer needs to integrate XenMobile Device Manager with XenMobile App Controller for internal testing purposes. Which two requirements must the engineer ensure are met in order to successfully configure this environment? (Choose two.)

A. The Device Manager must be able to resolve the App Controller’s Host Name.
B. The App Controller root certificate must be installed on the Device Manager server.
C. Ports 80 and 443 must be opened between the Device Manager and the App Controller.
D. Both the Device Manager and the App Controller must be located on the same network subnet.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Scenario:StoreFront is implemented as part of a XenMobile solution. Users in the environment currently rely on HTML5 Receiver because Citrix Receiver is NOT installed on their workstations. How could a Citrix Engineer present Web/SaaS applications to these users based on the scenario?

A. Enable StoreFront to aggregate App Controller apps.
B. Add the App Controller server to StoreFront as a Delivery Controller.
C. Enable the ‘Require app installation’ option in the Web/SaaS application properties.
D. Add the StoreFront Legacy support URL to the Windows Apps Configuration on the App Controller.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?

A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.

Answer: C
QUESTION 2
An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that the current status is Not Protected. What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected? (Choose two.)

A. Stopped – Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM – The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM – The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine cannot be generated.
D. Disabled – Fault Tolerance is disabled.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose two.)

A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are available? (Choose three.)

A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 5
ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a 10- node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host. Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this template? (Choose three.)

A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)

A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 7
Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore alarm? (Choose three.)

A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service. What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)

A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment. Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)

A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA).
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone technology to virtual desktops?

A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage vMotion? (Choose two.)

A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance benefit? (Choose two.)

A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster. Which setting satisfies this requirement?

A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is used? (Choose two.)

A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.

Answer: BC

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